PMT SAMPLE QUESTION 2011

1.The potential energy between electron and proton is U = . According to Bohr’s theory the energy in n^th orbit of such a hypothetical atom will be proportional to

(a) n⁶ (b) n⁴

(c) n² (d) n

2. The -particle is emitted by ²²⁶Ra have a kinetic energy 4.7845 MeV. The recoil kinetic energy of the daughter atom will be

(a) 0.045 MeV (b) 0.03 MeV

(c) 0.0862 MeV (d) 0.021 MeV

3. For a prism the refractive index  is related to wavelength () as  = A + B/². The dispersive power is large if

(a) A is large (b) B is large

(c)  is large (d) A and  are large

4. An object is taken at two different positions, on principal axis of convex lens, the two images of equal height are found at positions v₁ and v₂ (v₁ > v₂). The focal length of convex lens will be

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

5. A tap of water at 10°C and another tap at 100°C. How much hot water must be taken so that we get 20 kg water at 35°C?

(a) 7.2 kg (b) 10 kg

(c) 14.4 kg (d) 5.6 kg

6. The power of a sound from the speaker of a radio is 20 mW. By turning the knob of the volume control, the power of the sound is increased to 400 mW. The power increase in decibels as compared to the original power is

(a) 13.0 dB (b) 10 dB

(c) 20 dB (d) 8000 dB

7. 45° F temperature difference convert into Celsius?

(a) 7.2°C (b) 25°C

(c) 40°C (d) 65°C

8. A reel of mass less thread rolls itself falling down under gravity. The acceleration of its fall is

(a) g (b) g/2

(c) 2g/3 (d) 4g/3

9. A slope of particle of a plane progressive wave is –1/5 times of velocity of particle which is the correct among the following

(a) Wave motion in +ve X-axis and velocity of wave is 5 unit

(b) Wave motion in –ve X-axis and velocity of wave is 5 unit

(c) Wave motion in +ve X-axis and velocity of wave is 1/5 unit

(d) Wave motion in –ve X-axis and velocity of wave is 1/5 unit

10. Large number of electric bulbs each of 100W-200V are connected in parallel with a supply of 240V and internal resistance 10, the total number of electric bulbs that can be glow with maximum intensity are

(a) 8 (b) 12

(c) 16 (d) 24

11. A circuit of primary cells and a resistor as shown in figure, the flow of current in resistor (R) is (a) 4A (b) 2 A (c) Zero (d) 0.5A

12. Two infinite current carrying wires are arranged as shown in figure, the net magnetic field at point P is (a) 0.282 mT (b) 2.82 mT (c) 0.42 mT (d) 4.2 mT

13. An object is projected at an angle its time of flight is 8 s. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s² then its maximum height will be

(a) 20 m (b) 80 m

(c) 320 m (d) can never be calculated

14. Cp and Cv are molar specific heats at constant pressure and volume respectively, for 8 gm oxygen Cp – Cv will be (R is gas constant)

(a) 4 R (b) 2 R

(c) R/2 (d) R

15. A displacement-time graph of plane progressive wave as shown in figure if amplitude of wave is a what is the phase difference between particles A and B is (a) /3 (b) /2 (c) 2/3 (d) 

Chemistry

16. Assuming that air is 79% by mole of N­₂, 20 mole % O₂ and 1% Ar, the density of air at 25°C and 1 atm is (Atomic mass of Ar = 39.9)

(a) 1.18 g/lit (b) 1.08 g/lit

(c) 1.28 g/lit (d) 1.0 g/lit

17. The E° of a cell in which the reaction + 14H⁺ + 6e^–  2Cr³⁺ + 7H₂O occurs is 1.33 volt at 25°C. The logarithm of equilibrium constant for the reaction is approximately

(a) 34.9 (b) 134.9

(c) 234.9 (d) 14.9

18. A solution of optically active 1-phenylethanol in acidified aqueous medium recemizes due to

(a) enolisation (b) carbonium ion formation

(c) alkene formation (d) reversible oxidation-reduction

19. The standard enthalpy change for the neutralization of hydrocyanic acid and NaOH is = – 2460 cal. Given that the standard enthalpy change for the neutralization of HCl and NaOH = – 13,360 cal. What is the heat of ionization of HCN.

(a) –15,820 cals. (b) +10,900 cals.

(c) –10,900 cals. (d) +15,820 cals.

20. Titanium crystallizes in a face centred cubic lattice. It reacts with carbon or hydrogen interstitially by allowing atoms of these elements to occupy holes in the host lattice. Hydrogen occupies tetrahedral holes but carbon occupies octahedral holes. The formula of titanium carbide and hybride are

(a) TiC₂, TiH₄ (b) TiC, TiH₂

(c) Ti₃C, TiH₂ (d) TiC₂, TiH

21. The clevage of an unsymmetrical ether by HI produces

(a) PhCH₂OH (b) PhCH₂CH­₂OH

(c) PhI (d)

22. When one gram mole of KmnO₄ reacts with HCl, the volume of chlorine liberated at NTP will be

(a) 11.2 litres (b) 22.4 litres

(c) 44.8 litres (d) 56.0 litres

23. The reactivity of the compounds (I) MeBr (II) PhCH₂Br (III) MeCl and (IV) p-MeOC₆H₄CH₂Br decreases as

(a) I > II > III > IV (b) II > I > III >IV

(c) IV > II > I > III (d) IV > III > I > II

24. When a standard hydrogen electrode is coupled with a hydrogen electrode as shown as Pt|H₂(1atm)|H⁺(acid)|| H⁺(1M) | H₂(1atm)| Pt

The emf of the cell will be maximum when the acid taken in anode compartment is

(a) 0.1 M HCl (b) 0.1 M H₂SO₄

(c) 0.1 M CH₃CO₂H (d) 0.1 M HCO₂H

25. Conversion of methyl cyclopentene to trans-2-methyl-1-cyclopentanol can be conveniently achieved by

(a) NaOH – H₂O (b) Hydroboration-oxidation

(c) Hydroboration-hydrolysis (d) Oxymercuration-demercuration

26. In gaseous reactions important for the understanding of the upper atmosphere, H₂O and O react bimolecularly to form two OH radicals. H for this reaction is 72 kJ at 500 K and E_a is 77 kJ mol^–1, then E_a for the bimolecular recombination of two OH radicals to form H₂O and O is

(a) 3 kJ mol^–1 (b) 4 kJ mol^–1

(c) 5 kJ mol^–1 (d) 7 kJ mol^–1

27. 0.5 g of fuming H₂SO₄ is diluted with H₂O. This solution is completely neutralized by 26.7 ml of 0.4 N NaOH. The percentage of free SO₃ in the sample is

(a) 30.6% (b) 40.6%

(c) 20.9% (d) 50%

28. With very strong bases, such as amide ion, , unactivated aryl halides undergo substitution by an elimination-addition or benzyne mechanism. Which of the following statements given below does not support the benzyne mechanism?

(a) 2, 6-Dimethyl chlorobenzene, does not react by this mechanism.

(b) o-Bromoanisole reacts with NaNH₂/NH₃ to form o-anisidine.

(c) o-Bromoanisole reacts with NaNH₂/NH₃ to form m-anisidine.

(d) 2, 6-Dideuterobromobenzene reacts more slowly than bromobenzene.

29. A balloon filled with Hydrogen at 0.1 atm is prickled with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank full of acetylene at atmospheric pressure. After a while the balloon would have

(a) Shrunk (b) Enlarged

(c) Completely collapsed (d) Remain unchanged in size

30. Chlorobenzene is allowed to undergo nitration, sulphonation, chlorination and bromination under appropriate conditions separately. What will be the order of increasing ortho product

(a) Sulphonation < bromination < nitration < chlorination

(b) Sulphonation < nitration < bromination < chlorination

(c) Sulphonation < bromination < chlorination < nitration

(d) Bromination < sulphonation < chlorination < nitration

Botany

31. Under favourable conditions of binary fission, a bacterial cell divides into two after every 20 minutes. How many approximate bacterial cells may survive after 2 hours?

(a) 64 (b) 6

(c) 8 (d) 63

32. Which of the following is a true moss?

(a) Wolf moss (b) Florida moss

(c) Spanish moss (d) None of these

33. In which of the following lysosome occurs?

(a) Aspergillus (b) Penicillium

(c) Neurospora (d) All of these

34. Which of the following phytohormones brings about the negative gravitropism of roots and the positive gravitropism in stem?

(a) GA (b) ABA

(c) IAA (d) None

35. The difference between the redox potentials of Cytochrome b₆ and cytochrome f in
Z-scheme amounts to

(a) 0.03 v (b) 0.36

(c) 0.33 (d) 0.23

36. Which of the following insectivorous plants is called Cobra lily?

(a) Heliamphora (b) Darlingtonia

(c) Genlisea (d) Cephalotus

37. The phyllotaxy found in guava is

(a) Alternate (b) Opposite superposed

(c) Opposite decussate (d) Both (b) and (c)

38. Tissue between xylem and phloem strands in monocot stem is

(a) Intrafascicular cambium (b) Interfascicular cambium

(c) Conjunctive tissue (d) None

39. The type of fruit found in jack fruit and monkey fruit is

(a) Sorosis (b) Syconus

(c) Sorosis and suyconus, respectively (d) Syconus and sorosis, respectively

40. CAZRI is situated at

(a) Nagpur (b) Jodhpur

(c) Palampur (d) Bilaspur

41. During radioactive pollution oysters deposite

(a) ⁶⁵Zn (b) ⁵⁵Fe

(c) ⁹⁰Sr (d) All of these

42. In which of the following layers of the atmosphere, temperature decreases with height?

(a) Stratosphere (b) Mesosphere

(c) Thermosphere (d) All of these

43. Incomplete dominance, codominance and multiple alleles are which type of gene interaction?

(a) Intragenic interaction (b) Intergenic interaction

(c) Interallelic interaction (d) Both (a) and (c)

44. Repititive DNA is not met with in

(a) Yeast (b) Prokaryotes

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Eukaryotes

45. Which of the following is not an obligate parasite?

(a) Viroid (b) Prion

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

Zoology

46. The presence of specific immunoglobulin response to antigen in the animal kingdom is thought to be limited to ………..

(a) Non-chordates (b) Mammals

(c) Vertebrates (d) Birds and mammals

47. Spiral valve of Heister is present in

(a) cystic duct (b) Hepto-pancreatic duct

(c) Pancreatic duct (d) Bile duct

48. Peacetime deaths concern to

(a) Effect of poison on stomach

(b) Food poisoning

(c) Gaseous poisoning

(d) Snake venom cause agglutination of R.B.Cs

49. Hypokinetic Hypoxia concerned to

(a) Reduced blood flow rate (b) Low O_2– content in blood

(c) Low O₂ in artery (d) Low oxygen content in venous blood

50. In which stage of developmental form of fasciola showing polyembrony?

(a) Sporocyst (b) Metacercaria

(c) Redia (d) Both (a) and (c)

51. Mystagmus is sex linked disease

(a) Long hairy growth on the pinna (b) Involuntary oscillation of eye ball

(c) Abnormality of the mitral valve (d) Degenaration of optic nerve

52. Howship lacunae occurs in

(a) Spleen (b) Liver

(c) Bone (d) Cartilage

53. Sugar in the urine of pregnant lady may indicate

(a) Lactosuria (b) Benign renal glycosuria

(c) Diabetes mellitus (d) All of these

54. Vaginal bleeding in a new born female infant is due to

(a) Trauma (b) Infection

(c) Haemorrhagic disease (d) Estrogen withdrawal

55. The vitamins that help to counteract the deleterious effects of corticosteroids on wound healing is

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B₂

(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin E

56. Regarding C.S.F. all are true except

(a) It is an ultrafiltrate of plasma

(b) It provides a greater part of the nutritional requirement

(c) It is important in protecting the brain from injury when the head is struck.

4. It has pressure 110-130 mm H₂O

57. The philedelphia chromosome is usually related to person suffering from

(a) Chronic lymphatic leukemia (b) Acute lymphatic leukemia

(c) Chronic myelocytic leukemia (d) Osteosarcoma

58. Which of the following observation about saliva is incorrect

(a) Its enzyme ptylin is concerned in the digestion of disaccharides

(b) By its solvent action on the food stuffs at anables testing to take place

(c) It facilitates, speech moistens the food and lubricates the process of swallowing

(d) It is secreted in response to the sight, taste and smell of food and also to the act of chewing

59. The characteristics of normal menstrual discharge are the following except

(a) It consists of dark altered blood mixed with mucus secretions

(b) It does not clot and contains and no prothembin though it is rich in calcium

(c) It contains leucocytes cell debris and necrotic tissue

(d) Its fibrinogen content is very high

60. Which statement is wrong about trends of human evolution?

(a) Erect posture by the development of lumber crest

(b) Development of articulated speech

(c) Opposability of thumb and loss of opposability of great toe in hind limb

4. Shortening of iliac bone.

Answers

1.	(a)	2.	(c)	3.	(b)	4.	(b)	5.	(d)
6.	(a)	7.	(b)	8.	(c)	9.	(a)	10.	(a)
11.	(b)	12.	(a)	13.	(b)	14.	(a)	15.	(c)
16.	(a)	17.	(b)	18.	(b)	19.	(b)	20.	(b)
21.	(d)	22.	(d)	23.	(c)	24.	(c)	25.	(b)
26.	(c)	27.	(c)	28.	(b)	29.	(b)	30.	(a)
31	(b)	32	(d)	33	(c)	24	(d)	35	(c)
36	(b)	37	(d)	38	(d)	39	(c)	40	(b)
41	(a)	42	(b)	43	(d)	44	(c)	45	(d)
46.	(c)	47.	(a)	48.	(c)	49.	(a)	50.	(d)
51.	(b)	52.	(c)	53.	(d)	54.	(d)	55.	(a)
56.	(b)	57.	(c)	58.	(a)	59.	(d)	60.	(d)